A d-block element forms octahedral complex but its spin magnetic moment remains same either in strong field or in weak field ligand Which pf the following is//are correct ?
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B, C
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Velence bond theroy describes the bonding in complexs in terms of coordinate -covalent bond resulting from overlap filled ligand orbitals with vacant metal hybrid orbitals This theory explains magnetic behaviour and geometrical shape of coordination compounds Magnetic moment of a complex compound can be determined experimentally and theoretically by using spin only formula Magnetic moment sqrtn (n+2)BM (where n = No. unpaired electrons) . The value of of spin only magnetic moment for octahedral complex of the following configuration is 2.84BM The correct statement is (a) d^(4) (in weak field ligand) (b) d^(2) (in weak field and in strong field ligand) (c) d^(3) (in weak field and in strong field ligand) (d) d^(5) (in strong field ligand) .
On the basis of crystal field theory explain why Co(III) Forms paramagnetic octahedral complex with weak field ligands whereas it forms diamagnetic octahedral complex with strong field ligands.
Magnetic moment (spin only) of octahedron complex having CFSE=-`0.8Delta_(0)` and surrounded by weak field ligands can be:
On the basis of crystal field theory explain why Co(III) forms paramagnetic octahedral complex with weak - field ligands whereas it forms diamagnetic octahedral complex with strong - field ligands.
A d-block element forms octahedral complex but its magnetic moment remains same either in strong field or in weak field ligand. Which of the following is/are correct?
The value of spin only magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is "2.84BM" .The correct one is: \(d^{8}\) (in weak field ligand) \(d^{4}\) (in weak field ligand) \(d^{3}\) (in weak as well as strong field ligand) \(d^{5}\) (in strong field ligand)
एक d-ब्लॉक का तत्व अष्ट्रफलकीय संकुल बनाता है लेकिन इसका चुम्बकीय आघूर्ण प्रबल क्षेत्र या दुर्बल क्षेत्र लिगेण्ड में समान रहता है। निम्न में से कौन सा/से कथन सही है/हैं
A d-block element forms octahedral complex but its spin magnetic moment remains same either in strong field or in weak field ligand. Which of the following is/are correct ?
Velence bond theroy describes the bonding in complexs in terms of coordinate -covalent bond resulting from overlap filled ligand orbitals with vacant metal hybrid orbitals This theory explains magnetic behaviour and geometrical shape of coordination compounds Magnetic moment of a complex compound can be determined experimentally and theoretically by using spin only formula Magnetic moment `sqrtn (n+2)BM` (where n = No. unpaired electrons) . The value of of spin only magnetic moment for octahedral complex of the following configuration is `2.84BM` The correct statement is (a) `d^(4)` (in weak field ligand) (b) `d^(2)` (in weak field and in strong field ligand) (c) `d^(3)` (in weak field and in strong field ligand) (d) `d^(5)` (in strong field ligand) .
The value of 'spin only' magnetic moment for one of the following configurations, is `2.84 BM`. The ćorrect one is : `d^4` (in strong ligand field) ,
`d^2` (in weak ligand fteld) ,
`d^3` (in weak as well as strong fields) ,
`d^5` (in strong ligand field)