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If : p = cot 20^(@),"then": (tan 160^(@)...

If : `p = cot 20^(@),"then": (tan 160^(@) - tan 110^(@))/(1 +tan 160^(@) * tan 110^(@))=` A)`(p^(2)-1)/(2p)` B)`(p^(2)+1)/(2p)` C)`(1-p^(2))/(2p)` D)`(2p)/(1 + p^(2))`

A

`(p^(2)-1)/(2p)`

B

`(p^(2)+1)/(2p)`

C

`(1-p^(2))/(2p)`

D

`(2p)/(1 + p^(2))`

Text Solution

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we need to evaluate the expression: \[ \frac{\tan 160^\circ - \tan 110^\circ}{1 + \tan 160^\circ \tan 110^\circ} \] Given that \( p = \cot 20^\circ \). ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Use the Tangent Difference Formula**: The formula for the tangent of the difference of two angles is: \[ \tan(x - y) = \frac{\tan x - \tan y}{1 + \tan x \tan y} \] Here, let \( x = 160^\circ \) and \( y = 110^\circ \). Thus, we can rewrite the expression as: \[ \tan(160^\circ - 110^\circ) = \tan 50^\circ \] 2. **Express \(\tan 50^\circ\)**: We can express \(\tan 50^\circ\) in terms of cotangent: \[ \tan 50^\circ = \tan(90^\circ - 40^\circ) = \cot 40^\circ \] 3. **Relate \(\cot 40^\circ\) to \(\cot 20^\circ\)**: We know that: \[ \cot 40^\circ = \cot(2 \times 20^\circ) = \frac{\cot^2 20^\circ - 1}{2 \cot 20^\circ} \] Using the identity \(\cot(2\theta) = \frac{\cot^2 \theta - 1}{2 \cot \theta}\), we substitute \(\cot 20^\circ\) with \(p\): \[ \cot 40^\circ = \frac{p^2 - 1}{2p} \] 4. **Final Result**: Therefore, we have: \[ \frac{\tan 160^\circ - \tan 110^\circ}{1 + \tan 160^\circ \tan 110^\circ} = \tan 50^\circ = \cot 40^\circ = \frac{p^2 - 1}{2p} \] 5. **Conclusion**: The expression simplifies to: \[ \frac{p^2 - 1}{2p} \] Thus, the correct answer is option A: \((p^2 - 1)/(2p)\).
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