Home
Class 12
MATHS
Prove that int(0)^((pi)/(2)) log ( tan x...

Prove that `int_(0)^((pi)/(2)) log ( tan x ) dx = 0 `

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
0
Promotional Banner

Topper's Solved these Questions

  • APPLICATION OF INTEGRATION

    SURA PUBLICATION|Exercise 3 MARKS|5 Videos
  • APPLICATION OF INTEGRATION

    SURA PUBLICATION|Exercise 5 MARKS|7 Videos
  • APPLICATION OF INTEGRATION

    SURA PUBLICATION|Exercise ADDITIONAL QUESTION|10 Videos
  • APPLICATION OF MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS

    SURA PUBLICATION|Exercise ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)|5 Videos

Similar Questions

Explore conceptually related problems

Prove that int_(0)^((pi)/(2)) sin 2x log ( tan x ) dx = 0

int_(0)^((pi)/(2)) log (cotx)dx is :

Prove that int_(0)^((pi)/(4))log(1+tanx)dx=(pi)/(8)log2

Prove that int_(0)^(pi/4)log(1+tanx)dx=(pi)/(8) log2.

Provethat int_(0)^((pi)/(2))(dx)/(1+tanx)=(pi)/(4)

By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate the integrals int_(0)^((pi)/(4))log(1+tanx)dx

int_(0)^(pi/2)e^(-x) sinx dx is

The value of int_(0)^((pi)/(2)) (dx)/( 1+ tan x) is