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If z is a complex number and z=bar(z), t...

If `z` is a complex number and `z=bar(z)`, then prove that `z` is a purely real number.

A

`Re(z)=0`

B

`Im(z)=0`

C

`Re(z)=Im(z)`

D

None of these

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To prove that if \( z \) is a complex number such that \( z = \bar{z} \), then \( z \) is a purely real number, we can follow these steps: ### Step 1: Define the complex number Let \( z \) be a complex number, which can be expressed in the form: \[ z = x + iy \] where \( x \) is the real part and \( y \) is the imaginary part of \( z \). ### Step 2: Write the conjugate of the complex number The conjugate of \( z \), denoted as \( \bar{z} \), is given by: \[ \bar{z} = x - iy \] ### Step 3: Set up the equation According to the problem, we have: \[ z = \bar{z} \] Substituting the expressions for \( z \) and \( \bar{z} \) gives: \[ x + iy = x - iy \] ### Step 4: Compare real and imaginary parts Now, we can compare the real and imaginary parts of both sides of the equation: - The real part: \( x = x \) (this is always true) - The imaginary part: \( iy = -iy \) ### Step 5: Solve for the imaginary part From the imaginary part, we have: \[ iy + iy = 0 \implies 2iy = 0 \] This implies: \[ 2y = 0 \] Thus, we find: \[ y = 0 \] ### Step 6: Conclude that \( z \) is purely real Since \( y = 0 \), we can substitute back into the expression for \( z \): \[ z = x + i(0) = x \] This shows that \( z \) has no imaginary part, meaning \( z \) is purely real. ### Final Conclusion Therefore, we have proven that if \( z = \bar{z} \), then \( z \) is a purely real number. ---
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