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If f (x)= tan ^(-1) (sgn (n ^(2) -lamda ...

If `f (x)= tan ^(-1) (sgn (n ^(2) -lamda x+1))` has exactly one point of discontinuity, then the value of `lamda ` can be:

A

1

B

`-1`

C

2

D

`-2`

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
C, D
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Knowledge Check

  • Consider f(x)=Lim_(nto oo)((a^(n)+b^(n))^((1)/(n))sinx+{e^(x)}^(n))([(1)/(ncot^(-1)n)]+1),AAx inR where agtbgt0 . [Note : {k} and [k] denotes fractinal part of k and greatest interger less than or equal to k respectively.] If H(x)=sgn (f(x)-3) has exactly one point of discontinuity AA x in[0,2pi] , then number of integral value of a, is

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