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Let f(x+y)=f(x)f(y) for all x,y in Rand ...

Let `f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)` for all `x,y in R`and `f(0)!=0`. Let `phi(x)=f(x)/(1+f(x)^2)`. Then prove that `phi(x)-phi(-x)=0`

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