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Assertion : The time period of a freely ...

Assertion : The time period of a freely falling pendulum is infinite.
Reason : The effective value of acceleration due to gravity becomes zero.

A

If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.

B

If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C

If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.

D

If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the question, we need to analyze both the assertion and the reason provided. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understanding the Assertion**: - The assertion states that "The time period of a freely falling pendulum is infinite." - A pendulum's time period is defined as the time it takes to complete one full oscillation. 2. **Understanding the Reason**: - The reason states that "The effective value of acceleration due to gravity becomes zero." - In a freely falling frame (like the pendulum's support), both the pendulum bob and the support are accelerating downwards at the same rate (g). 3. **Analyzing the Effective Gravity**: - When the pendulum is in free fall, we can analyze it from a non-inertial frame (the frame falling with the pendulum). - In this frame, the acceleration of the pendulum bob appears to be zero because it is falling with the same acceleration as its support. 4. **Calculating the Time Period**: - The formula for the time period \( T \) of a simple pendulum is given by: \[ T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g_{\text{effective}}}} \] - Here, \( L \) is the length of the pendulum, and \( g_{\text{effective}} \) is the effective acceleration due to gravity. 5. **Substituting the Effective Gravity**: - Since we established that \( g_{\text{effective}} = 0 \) in the case of a freely falling pendulum, substituting this into the formula gives: \[ T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{0}} \] - Dividing by zero leads to \( T \) being infinite. 6. **Conclusion**: - Since the time period \( T \) is infinite, the assertion is correct. - The reason correctly explains why the time period is infinite, as it shows that the effective acceleration due to gravity is zero. - Therefore, both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. ### Final Answer: Both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the assertion. ---
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Knowledge Check

  • The value of acceleration due to gravity

    A
    is same on equator and poles
    B
    is least on poles
    C
    is least on equator
    D
    increase from pole to equator
  • The value of acceleration due to gravity

    A
    Is same at the equator and poles
    B
    Is least at the poles
    C
    Is least at the equator
    D
    Is maximum at the centre of the earth
  • The acceleration due to gravity at the equator becomes zero, if

    A
    the speed of rotation of earth decreases to 1/17th of its present value
    B
    the time period of rotation of earth decreases to 1/17th of its present value
    C
    the speed of revolution of earth around the sun increases 17 times
    D
    the angular velocity of rotation of earth becomes zero
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