int log(1+tan x)dx" an "4 pi

If I = int_0^(pi/4) log (1+ tan x) dx , then I =

Evaluate int_(0)^(pi"/"4) log (1 + tan x ) dx .

Prove that int_(0)^((pi)/(2)) log ( tan x ) dx = 0

int_0^(pi//2) log(tan x)dx =

int_0^(pi//2) log(tan x) dx is :

By using the properties of definite integrals evaluate the integrals in exercise. overset((pi)/(4))underset(0)int log (1+tan x)dx