If magnetic monopoles existed, how would tha Gauss's law of magnetism be modified ?

Explanation

Gauss's law of magnetism states that the fllux of B through any closed surface is always zero `underset(s)intB. ds = 0`.
If monopoles existed, the right hand side would be equal to the monopole (magnetic charge) `q_(m)` enclosed by S. [Analogous to Gauss's law of electrostatics, `underset(s)int B. ds = mu_(0) q_(m)` where `q_(m)` is the (monopole) magnetic charge enclosed by S.]