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A violin and a sitar may have the same f...

A violin and a sitar may have the same frequency, yet we can distinguish between their notes. Why ?

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This is on account of the difference in quality (timbre) of sound produced by them.
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Assertion : Our ears cannot distinguish two notes,one produced by a violin and other by a sitar, if they have exactly the same intensity and same frequency Reason:When a musical instrument is played it produces a fundamental note which is accompanied by number of overtones called harmonics