If `y=(a^cos^((-1)x))/(1+a^cos^((-1)x))` and `z=a^cos^((-1)x)` , then `(dy)/(dz)` is equal to........

Similar Questions

Explore conceptually related problems

If y=(a^(cos^-1x))/(1+a^(cos^-1x)) and z= a^(cos^-1x) , then dy/dz=

If y=(a^(cos^-1x))/(1+a^(cos^-1x))andz=a^(cos^-1x),then (dy)/(dx) =

If y=sin^(-1)xandz=cos^(-1)(sqrt(1-x^(2))) , then (dy)/(dz) is equal to

If y=cos^(-1) (cos x),"then " (dy)/(dx) is

If y="cosec"^(-1)((x+1)/(x-1))+cos^(-1)((x-1)/(x+1)) , then (dy)/(dx) is equal to -

If y=(sin^(-1)x-cos^(-1)x)/(sin^(-1)x+cos^(-1)x)," then "(dy)/(dx)=

If y=tan^(-1)((sqrt(1+x^(2))-1)/(x)) and z=tan^(-1)((2x)/(1-x^(2))) , then (dy)/(dz) is equal to -

If y=sin^(-1)x,z=cos^(-1)sqrt(1-x^(2))," then: "(dy)/(dz)=

If y=cos((1)/(2)cos^(-1)x)," then "(dy)/(dx)=