Electric potential at a point 0 due to a number of a point charges equidistant from 0 si `V_(1)` when charges are uniformly distributed and it is `V_(2)` when charges are non uniformly distributed , Fig. Is `V_(1) = V_(2) ? Justify.

Explanation

If r is radius of the sphere with center 0,then by defiinition
`V_(1) = 4 ((q)/(4pi in_(0) r)) , and V_(2) = 4 ((q)/(4pi in_(0) r))`
`:. V_(1) = V_(2)`
This is because electric potential is a scaler quanity.It depends only on distance of the point from the charge and not on direction of its location from the charge.