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Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {4, 5, 6, 7}and l...

Let `A = {1, 2, 3}`, `B = {4, 5, 6, 7}`and let `f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)}`be a function from A to B. Show that f is one-one.

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To show that the function \( f = \{(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)\} \) from set \( A = \{1, 2, 3\} \) to set \( B = \{4, 5, 6, 7\} \) is one-one (injective), we need to demonstrate that each element in the domain \( A \) is mapped to a unique element in the codomain \( B \). ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Identify the Function**: The function \( f \) is defined as follows: \[ f(1) = 4, \quad f(2) = 5, \quad f(3) = 6 ...
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