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If f(x) = (a-x^n)^(1/n), a > 0 and n in ...

If `f(x) = (a-x^n)^(1/n), a > 0 and n in N`, then prove that `f(f(x)) = x` for all x.

A

`a`

B

`x`

C

`a^n`

D

`x^n`

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
B
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