I=int_(0)^( pi)(x)/(1+sin x cos alpha)dx

int_(0)^( pi)(1)/(1+(sin x)^(cos x))dx

Prove that: int_(0)^( pi)(x)/(1-cos alpha sin x)dx=(pi(pi-alpha))/(sin alpha)

Evaluate :int_(0)^( pi)(x)/(1+sin alpha sin x)dx

int_(0)^((pi)/(2))(x)/(sin x+cos x)dx

int_(0)^(pi//2) x sin x cos x dx

int_(0)^(pi//2) x sin x cos x dx

int_(0)^(pi) x sin x cos^(2)x\ dx

int_(0)^(pi) x sin x cos^(2)x\ dx

int_ (0) ^ (pi) (xdx) / (1 + cos alpha * sin x) = (pi alpha) / (sin alpha), 0

If int_(0)^((pi)/(2))(dx)/(1+sin x+cos x)=In2, then the value of int_(0)^((pi)/(2))(sin x)/(1+sin x+cos x)dx is equal to: