Let `A=R-{2}` and `B=R-{1}` . If `f: A->B` is a mapping defined by `f(x)=(x-1)/(x-2)` , show that `f` is bijective.

Explanation

We have,

`A=R−{2}` and `B=R−{1}`

`f(x)=(x−1​)/(x−2)`

Let,

`f(x)=f(y)`


Now,

`(x−1​)/(x−2)​=(y−1​)/(y−2)`

...