If `y=e^(m\ sin^(-1)x)` , prove that `(1-x^2)(d^2y)/(dx^2)-x(dy)/(dx)-m^2y=0` .

Explanation

To prove that \((1-x^2)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}-x\frac{dy}{dx}-m^2y=0\) for \(y=e^{m \sin^{-1} x}\), we will follow these steps:

### Step 1: Define the function and take the first derivative

Given:
\[ y = e^{m \sin^{-1} x} \]
...