Let f and g be function that are differentiable for all real numbers x and that have the following properties: `f'(x)=f(x)-g(x);`

Let f(x) be non-constant differentiable function for all real x and f(x) = f(1-x) Then Roole's theorem is not applicable for f(x) on

Let f(x) and g(x) be two functions which are defined and differentiable for all x>=x_(0). If f(x_(0))=g(x_(0)) and f'(x)>g'(x) for all x>x_(0), then prove that f(x)>g(x) for all x>x_(0).

Let g(x) be the inverse of an invertible function f(x), which is differentiable for all real x. Then g''(f(x)) equals

Let g(x) be the inverse of an invertible function f(x), which is differentiable for all real x. Then g''(f(x)) equals

Let g(x) be the inverse of an invertible function f(x), which is differentiable for all real xdot Then g''(f(x)) equals.

If f(x) and g(x) are be two functions with all real numbers as their domains, then h(x) =[f(x) + f(-x)][g(x)-g(-x)] is:

Let f\ a n d\ g\ be real functions define by f(x)=x+2 and g(x)=4-x^2dot Then, find each of the following function: f+g

Let g(x) be the inverse of an invertible function f(x), which is differentiable for all x, then g'f(x) is equal to