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A wire of diameter 1mm breaks under a te...

A wire of diameter `1mm` breaks under a tension of 1000 N. Another wire, of same material as that of the first one, but of diameter `2mm` breaks under a tension of

A

500 N

B

1000 N

C

10000 N

D

4000 N

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we need to understand the relationship between the diameter of the wire, the area of cross-section, and the breaking tension. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understand the relationship between diameter and area**: The area \( A \) of a wire with diameter \( d \) is given by the formula: \[ A = \frac{\pi d^2}{4} \] 2. **Calculate the area for the first wire**: For the first wire with a diameter \( d_1 = 1 \, \text{mm} = 0.001 \, \text{m} \): \[ A_1 = \frac{\pi (0.001)^2}{4} = \frac{\pi \times 0.000001}{4} = \frac{\pi}{4000000} \, \text{m}^2 \] 3. **Determine the breaking tension for the first wire**: The breaking tension \( F_1 \) for the first wire is given as \( 1000 \, \text{N} \). 4. **Calculate the area for the second wire**: The second wire has a diameter \( d_2 = 2 \, \text{mm} = 0.002 \, \text{m} \): \[ A_2 = \frac{\pi (0.002)^2}{4} = \frac{\pi \times 0.000004}{4} = \frac{\pi}{1000000} \, \text{m}^2 \] 5. **Relate the breaking tensions of both wires**: Since both wires are made of the same material, the breaking tension is proportional to the cross-sectional area. Therefore, we can write: \[ \frac{F_2}{F_1} = \frac{A_2}{A_1} \] 6. **Substituting the areas**: Substituting the areas calculated: \[ \frac{F_2}{1000} = \frac{\frac{\pi}{1000000}}{\frac{\pi}{4000000}} \] Simplifying the right side: \[ \frac{F_2}{1000} = \frac{4000000}{1000000} = 4 \] 7. **Calculate \( F_2 \)**: Therefore: \[ F_2 = 4 \times 1000 = 4000 \, \text{N} \] ### Final Answer: The second wire, with a diameter of \( 2 \, \text{mm} \), breaks under a tension of \( 4000 \, \text{N} \).
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