The magnetic moment vectors `mu_(s)andmu_(l)` associated with the intrinsic spin angular momentum `vecs` and orbital angular angular momentum `vecl` respectively , of an electron are predicted by quantum theory to be given by
`mu_(s)=-((e)/(m))s,mu_(1)=-((e)/(2m))l`
Which of these relations is in accordance with the result expected classically ? Outline the derivation of the classical result.

Explanation

From the definition of `vec(mu_(1))and vec(l)`
`mu_(1)=IA=((e)/t).pir^(2)`
`andl=mvr=m.(2pir^(2))/(t)`
where an electron of mass m and charge -e completes one rotation in an orbit of radius r in time t .
`therefore (mu_(1))/(l)=(e)/(2m)`
The electron has a negative charge , `mu_(1)andl` are parallel and opposite to each other and both are perpendicular to the orbit .
`therefore" "mu_(1)=-(e)/(2m).l`
This relation is obtained classical physics .
But the relation `mu_(s)=-((e)/(m))s` cannot be established without quantum theory .