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A coin is tossed n times. The probabilit...

A coin is tossed n times. The probability of getting at least one head is greater than that of getting at least two tails by 5/32. Then n is :

A

5

B

10

C

15

D

None of these

Text Solution

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we need to find the number of times \( n \) a coin is tossed such that the probability of getting at least one head is greater than the probability of getting at least two tails by \( \frac{5}{32} \). ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Define the Probabilities**: - Let \( P(A) \) be the probability of getting at least one head. - Let \( P(B) \) be the probability of getting at least two tails. 2. **Calculate \( P(A) \)**: - The probability of getting at least one head can be calculated using the complement rule: \[ P(A) = 1 - P(\text{no heads}) \] - The probability of getting no heads (i.e., all tails) when tossing a coin \( n \) times is: \[ P(\text{no heads}) = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n \] - Therefore: \[ P(A) = 1 - \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n \] 3. **Calculate \( P(B) \)**: - The probability of getting at least two tails can also be calculated using the complement rule: \[ P(B) = 1 - P(\text{no tails}) - P(\text{exactly one tail}) \] - The probability of getting no tails (i.e., all heads) is: \[ P(\text{no tails}) = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n \] - The probability of getting exactly one tail is given by: \[ P(\text{exactly one tail}) = \binom{n}{1} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^1 \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{n-1} = n \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n \] - Therefore: \[ P(B) = 1 - \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n - n \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n \] \[ P(B) = 1 - (n + 1) \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n \] 4. **Set Up the Inequality**: - According to the problem, we have: \[ P(A) - P(B) = \frac{5}{32} \] - Substituting the expressions for \( P(A) \) and \( P(B) \): \[ \left(1 - \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n\right) - \left(1 - (n + 1) \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n\right) = \frac{5}{32} \] - Simplifying this gives: \[ -\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n + (n + 1) \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n = \frac{5}{32} \] \[ n \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n = \frac{5}{32} \] 5. **Solve for \( n \)**: - Rearranging gives: \[ n = \frac{5 \cdot 2^n}{32} \] - Testing integer values for \( n \): - For \( n = 5 \): \[ 5 = \frac{5 \cdot 2^5}{32} \Rightarrow 5 = \frac{5 \cdot 32}{32} \Rightarrow 5 = 5 \quad \text{(True)} \] Thus, the value of \( n \) is \( 5 \). ### Final Answer: \[ \boxed{5} \]
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