Is it true to say that, if in two triangles, an angle of one triangle is equal to an angle of another triangle and two sides of one triangle are proportional to the two sides of the other triangle, then the triangles are similar? Give reason for your answer.

Explanation

To determine whether the statement is true or false, we need to analyze the conditions provided regarding the two triangles.

### Step-by-Step Solution:

1. **Understanding the Given Information**:
We have two triangles, let's call them Triangle 1 (with vertices A, B, C) and Triangle 2 (with vertices D, E, F). The statement tells us that:
- One angle of Triangle 1 is equal to one angle of Triangle 2.
- Two sides of Triangle 1 are proportional to two sides of Triangle 2.
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