Why is Axiom 5, in the list of Euclid’s axioms, considered a ‘universal truth’? (Note that the question is not about the fifth postulate.)

Explanation

**Step-by-Step Text Solution:**

1. **Understanding Axiom 5**: Axiom 5 states that "the whole is greater than the part." This means that if you have a complete entity (the whole), any portion of that entity (the part) will always be less than the whole.

2. **Defining 'Whole' and 'Part'**: In this context, the 'whole' refers to an entire object or quantity, while a 'part' refers to a segment or portion of that whole. For example, if you have a book with 573 pages, the entire book is the whole, and if you take out 5 pages, those 5 pages represent the part.

3. **Illustrating the Concept**: If you take 5 pages out of the 573 pages, the remaining pages (568 pages) still constitute the whole book, and the 5 pages are just a part of it. Therefore, it is clear that the part (5 pages) is less than the whole (573 pages).

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