Circumference of two circles are equal. Is it necessary that their areas be equal ? Why ?

Explanation

True
`:' 2 pi r_(1) = 2pi r_(2)` (igven)
`rArr r_(1) = r_(2) = r` (say)
Now, `(A_(1))/(A_(2)) = (pi r_(1)^(2))/(pi r_(2)^(2)) = (r_(2))/(r_(2)) = 1`
`:. A_(1) = A_(2)` i.e., their areas are equal
Hence, the given statement is true