Given that f'(x) > g'(x) for all real x...

Given that `f'(x) > g'(x)` for all real `x, and f(0)=g(0)`. Then `f(x) < g(x)` for all x belong to `(a) `(0,oo) (b) `(-oo,0)` (c) `(-oo,oo)` (d) `none of these

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