The inverse of the statement `(p ^^ ~ q) -> r` is

If the inverse of implication p to q is defined as ~ p to ~q , then the inverse of the proposition ( p ^^ ~ q) to r is

If the inverse of implication p to q is defined as ~ p to ~q , then the inverse of the proposition ( p ^^ ~ q) to r is

If the inverse of implication p to q is defined as ~ p to ~q , then the inverse of the proposition ( p ^^ ~ q) to r is

If the inverse of implication p to q is defined as ~ p to ~q , then the inverse of the proposition ( p ^^ ~ q) to r is

The inverse of the proposition (p ^^ ~q) to r is

If the inverse of implication p rarr q is defined as ~p rarr ~q , then the inverse of the proposition (p ^^ ~q) rarr r is not equivalent to : I : ~r rarr p vv q II : ~p vv ~q rarr ~r III : r rarr p ^^ ~q The true statements in the above are :

Which one is the inverse of the statement (p vee q) to (p wedge q) ?

The inverse of the proposition (p ^^ ~q) rarr r is

The inverse of the proposition (p ^^ ~q) rarr r is