int_(0)^(a)ln(cot a+tan x)dx

int_(0)^(a)log(cot a+tan x)dx where a in(0,(pi)/(2)) is (A) a ln sin a(B)-a ln sin a(C)-a ln cos a (D) none of these

let f(a)=int_(0)^(a)ln(1+tan a tan x)dx then f'((pi)/(4)) equals

The value of int_(0)^(a) log ( cot a + tan x) d x , where a in (0,pi//2) is equal to

The value of int_(0)^(a) log ( cot a + tan x) d x , where a in (0,pi//2) is equal to

The value of int_(0)^(a) log ( cot a + tan x) d x , where a in (0,pi//2) is equal to

The value of int_(0)^(a) log ( cot a + tan x) d x , where a in (0,pi//2) is equal to

Prove: int_(0)^( pi/2)log|tan x|dx=0