Would the maximum possible magnetization of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetization of a ferromagnet?

Explanation

Yes, it can be of the same order. The two different materials do have minor differences in the strength of the individual atomic dipoles but a paramagnetic sample with saturated magnetization (maximum possible magnetization) will have the same order of magnetization. But this magnetic saturation requires very high magnetising fields, which are practically impossible to generate.