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Assertion: Magnetic field can always acc...

Assertion: Magnetic field can always accelerate the charged particle, if it is not moving, parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field.
Reason: When the velocity of a charged particle makes an angle other than `0^(@) " or " 180^(@)` , magnetic force is nonzero.

A

If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion .

B

If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C

If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.

D

If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the question, we need to analyze the assertion and reason provided: ### Assertion: Magnetic field can always accelerate the charged particle, if it is not moving parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field. ### Reason: When the velocity of a charged particle makes an angle other than \(0^\circ\) or \(180^\circ\), the magnetic force is non-zero. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understanding Magnetic Force**: The magnetic force (\(F_B\)) acting on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is given by the equation: \[ F_B = Q \cdot (v \times B) \] where \(Q\) is the charge, \(v\) is the velocity vector of the particle, and \(B\) is the magnetic field vector. 2. **Magnitude of Magnetic Force**: The magnitude of the magnetic force can be expressed as: \[ |F_B| = Q \cdot v \cdot B \cdot \sin(\theta) \] where \(\theta\) is the angle between the velocity vector (\(v\)) and the magnetic field vector (\(B\)). 3. **Analyzing Angles**: - If \(\theta = 0^\circ\) (parallel to the magnetic field) or \(\theta = 180^\circ\) (antiparallel to the magnetic field), then \(\sin(0^\circ) = 0\) and \(\sin(180^\circ) = 0\). This results in: \[ |F_B| = 0 \] - Thus, the magnetic force is zero when the charged particle moves parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field. 4. **Non-zero Magnetic Force**: - If the angle \(\theta\) is anything other than \(0^\circ\) or \(180^\circ\) (i.e., \(0 < \theta < 180\)), then \(\sin(\theta)\) is non-zero, leading to a non-zero magnetic force: \[ |F_B| \neq 0 \] - This means that the charged particle will experience a magnetic force, which can cause it to accelerate. 5. **Conclusion about Assertion and Reason**: - The assertion states that a magnetic field can always accelerate a charged particle if it is not moving parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field. This is true because a non-zero magnetic force implies a non-zero acceleration. - The reason correctly explains that the magnetic force is non-zero when the angle is not \(0^\circ\) or \(180^\circ\). 6. **Final Evaluation**: Both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason provides a correct explanation for the assertion. ### Final Answer: Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. ---
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