In the derivation of `P_1-P_2=rhogz` it was asumed that the liquid is incompressible. Whuy will tis equation not be stictly valid for a compressible liquid?

In the derivation of P_1-P_2=rhogz it was asumed that the liquid is incompressible. Why will this equation not be stictly valid for a compressible liquid?

In the derivation of P_1-P_2=rhogz it was asumed that the liquid is incompressible. Why will this equation not be stictly valid for a compressible liquid?

Whether Pascal's law deals with incompressible or compressible liquids.

Derive the equation of continuity for steady flow of an ideal liquid.

A : Equation ofcontinuity is A_(1) v_(1) rho_(1) = A_(2) v_(2) rho_(2) (symbols have their usual meanings). R : Equation of continuity is valid only for incompressible liquids.

A : Equation ofcontinuity is A_(1) v_(1) rho_(1) = A_(2) v_(2) rho_(2) (symbols have their usual meanings). R : Equation of continuity is valid only for incompressible liquids.

Liquid is …….. While gas is ….. . (fill in the blank) (incompressible ,compressible]

Prove Bernoulli 's Principle . OR Obtain Bernoulli's equation for steady incompressible irrotational and viscous liquid.