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Log (rate) dx = 0...

Log (rate) dx = 0

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Prove that int_(0)^((pi)/(2)) log ( tan x ) dx = 0

int_(0)^((pi)/(2))log(tanx)dx=0

If int_(0)^(pi//2) log(cosx) dx=pi/2 log (1/2), then int_(0) ^(pi//2) log (sec x ) dx =

y dx - xdy + log x dx = 0

int_(0)^((pi)/(2)) log (cotx)dx is :

The solution of y dx - x dy + log x dx = 0 is

Solve y log y dx + (x-log y) dy = 0.

int_(0)^(pi//2) log (cotx ) dx=

y log y dx - x dy = 0

y log y dx - x dy = 0