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The kinetic energy of any body depends o...

The kinetic energy of any body depends on the frame of reference of the observer. The kinetic energy is given by `1//2 mv_("rel")^(2)`. Similarly the displacement of the object from different frames of reference will be: different. But the forces acting on the body remain unchanged. So work done by the forces as seen from: different frames will be different. But work energy! theorem will still be hold in every inertial reference' frame.
For example, if a block of mass 2kg is moving with, velocity of `1m//s` towards east on a rough surface, its `KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx 1^(2) = 1J`
If it comes to rest, its `KE = 0`
work done by friction `= K_(f) - k_(i) = -1 J`
If we observe it form a frame 2 moving with `1m//s` toward east, its initial velocity will appear to be `1 - 1 = 0`
Initial `KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx 0^(2) = 0`
Final velocity `= 0 -1 = -1`
Final `KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx (-1)^(2) = 1J`
`rArr` Work done by friction `= 1 - 0 = 1J`
Choose correct statement :

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The kinetic energy of any body depends on the frame of reference of the observer. The kinetic energy is given by 1//2 mv_("rel")^(2) . Similarly the displacement of the object from different frames of reference will be: different. But the forces acting on the body remain unchanged. So work done by the forces as seen from: different frames will be different. But work energy! theorem will still be hold in every inertial reference' frame. For example, if a block of mass 2kg is moving with, velocity of 1m//s towards east on a rough surface, its KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx 1^(2) = 1J If it comes to rest, its KE = 0 work done by friction = K_(f) - k_(i) = -1 J If we observe it form a frame 2 moving with 1m//s toward east, its initial velocity will appear to be 1 - 1 = 0 Initial KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx 0^(2) = 0 Final velocity = 0 -1 = -1 Final KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx (-1)^(2) = 1J rArr Work done by friction = 1 - 0 = 1J According to passage:

The kinetic energy of any body depends on the frame of reference of the observer. The kinetic energy is given by 1//2 mv_("rel")^(2) . Similarly the displacement of the object from different frames of reference will be: different. But the forces acting on the body remain unchanged. So work done by the forces as seen from: different frames will be different. But work energy! theorem will still be hold in every inertial reference' frame. For example, if a block of mass 2kg is moving with, velocity of 1m//s towards east on a rough surface, its KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx 1^(2) = 1J If it comes to rest, its KE = 0 work done by friction = K_(f) - k_(i) = -1 J If we observe it form a frame 2 moving with 1m//s toward east, its initial velocity will appear to be 1 - 1 = 0 Initial KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx 0^(2) = 0 Final velocity = 0 -1 = -1 Final KE = (1)/(2) xx 2 xx (-1)^(2) = 1J rArr Work done by friction = 1 - 0 = 1J What should be the velocity of an observer so that he will report the work done by friction on the block to be 0:

Does the work done by a force depend on the frame of reference ?

The kinetic energy of an object depends on the frame of reference in which its motion is measured. Give an example to illustrate this point.

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Is work energy theorem valid in noninertial frames?

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Is work energy theorem valid in noninertial frames?