Let `A = {1, 2, 3}`, `B = {4, 5, 6, 7}`and let `f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)}`be a function from A to B. Show that f is one-one.

Explanation

To show that the function \( f: A \to B \) defined by \( f = \{(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)\} \) is one-one (injective), we need to demonstrate that each element in the domain \( A \) maps to a unique element in the codomain \( B \).

### Step-by-Step Solution:

1. **Identify the sets**:
- Let \( A = \{1, 2, 3\} \)
- Let \( B = \{4, 5, 6, 7\} \)
- The function \( f \) is defined as \( f = \{(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)\} \).
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