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int(0)^(100pi)(sum(r=1)^(10)tanrx)dx is ...

`int_(0)^(100pi)(sum_(r=1)^(10)tanrx)dx` is equal to

A

0

B

`100pi`

C

`-50pi`

D

`50pi`

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the integral \( \int_{0}^{100\pi} \left( \sum_{r=1}^{10} \tan(rx) \right) dx \), we will follow these steps: ### Step 1: Define the function Let \( f(x) = \sum_{r=1}^{10} \tan(rx) \). This means we are summing the tangent functions for \( r = 1 \) to \( r = 10 \). **Hint:** Recognize that \( \tan(rx) \) is a periodic function. ### Step 2: Identify the period of the function The function \( \tan(rx) \) has a period of \( \frac{\pi}{r} \). Therefore, the function \( f(x) \) will have a period of \( \pi \) since the highest frequency term is \( \tan(10x) \). **Hint:** The period of a sum of periodic functions is determined by the least common multiple of their individual periods. ### Step 3: Use the periodicity property of integrals Since \( f(x) \) is periodic with period \( \pi \), we can use the property of integrals of periodic functions: \[ \int_{0}^{a + nT} f(x) \, dx = n \int_{0}^{T} f(x) \, dx \] where \( T \) is the period of the function. In our case, we have: \[ \int_{0}^{100\pi} f(x) \, dx = 100 \int_{0}^{\pi} f(x) \, dx \] **Hint:** Break the integral over the larger interval into multiple integrals over one period. ### Step 4: Evaluate the integral over one period Now we need to compute: \[ \int_{0}^{\pi} f(x) \, dx = \int_{0}^{\pi} \left( \sum_{r=1}^{10} \tan(rx) \right) dx = \sum_{r=1}^{10} \int_{0}^{\pi} \tan(rx) \, dx \] **Hint:** You can interchange the summation and the integral due to linearity. ### Step 5: Evaluate \( \int_{0}^{\pi} \tan(rx) \, dx \) Using the property of definite integrals: \[ \int_{0}^{\pi} \tan(rx) \, dx = \int_{0}^{\pi} \tan(r(\pi - x)) \, dx = -\int_{0}^{\pi} \tan(rx) \, dx \] This implies: \[ 2 \int_{0}^{\pi} \tan(rx) \, dx = 0 \Rightarrow \int_{0}^{\pi} \tan(rx) \, dx = 0 \] **Hint:** Use symmetry properties of the tangent function. ### Step 6: Conclude the integral evaluation Since each integral \( \int_{0}^{\pi} \tan(rx) \, dx = 0 \), we have: \[ \int_{0}^{\pi} f(x) \, dx = \sum_{r=1}^{10} 0 = 0 \] Thus, \[ \int_{0}^{100\pi} f(x) \, dx = 100 \cdot 0 = 0 \] ### Final Answer The value of the integral \( \int_{0}^{100\pi} \left( \sum_{r=1}^{10} \tan(rx) \right) dx \) is \( \boxed{0} \). ---

To solve the integral \( \int_{0}^{100\pi} \left( \sum_{r=1}^{10} \tan(rx) \right) dx \), we will follow these steps: ### Step 1: Define the function Let \( f(x) = \sum_{r=1}^{10} \tan(rx) \). This means we are summing the tangent functions for \( r = 1 \) to \( r = 10 \). **Hint:** Recognize that \( \tan(rx) \) is a periodic function. ...
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