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Suppose `f_1` and `f_2` are non-zero one-one functions from `R` to `R` . Is `(f_1)/(f_2)` necessarily one-one? Justify your answer. Here, `(f_1)/(f_2): R->R` is given by `((f_1)/(f_2))(x)=(f_1(x))/(f_2(x))` for all `x in R` .

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