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A thin wire carrying current i is bent t...

A thin wire carrying current i is bent to form a closed loop of one turn. The loop is placed in y-z plane with centre at origin. If R is the radius of the loop, then

A

At a point (x, 0) on x-axis `B_(x) = (mu_(0)iR^(2))/(2(R^(2) + x^(2))^(3//2))`

B

`int_(0)^(oo) B_(x) dx = (mu_(0)i)/(2)`

C

`int_(0)^(-oo) B_(x) dx = mu_(0)i`

D

`int_(-oo)^(oo) B_(x) dx = 0`

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem of finding the magnetic field at a point on the x-axis due to a current-carrying loop in the y-z plane, we can follow these steps: ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understanding the Configuration**: - We have a thin wire bent into a circular loop of radius \( R \) in the y-z plane, centered at the origin. - We need to find the magnetic field at a point on the x-axis, specifically at the point \( (x, 0, 0) \). 2. **Magnetic Field Due to a Current Loop**: - The magnetic field \( B \) at a distance \( x \) from the center of the loop can be derived using the Biot-Savart law. - The magnetic field \( B_x \) at point \( P(x, 0, 0) \) due to the current \( I \) in the loop can be expressed as: \[ B_x = \frac{\mu_0 I R^2}{2 (R^2 + x^2)^{3/2}} \] - Here, \( \mu_0 \) is the permeability of free space. 3. **Setting Up the Integral**: - To find the total magnetic field, we need to integrate this expression over the entire loop. However, since the loop is symmetric, we can simplify our calculations. - The magnetic field contribution from opposite sides of the loop will add up in the x-direction, while contributions in the y and z directions will cancel out. 4. **Integration**: - The total magnetic field \( B_x \) can be obtained by integrating the expression for \( B_x \) from \( -\infty \) to \( +\infty \): \[ B_x = \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \frac{\mu_0 I R^2}{2 (R^2 + x^2)^{3/2}} \, dx \] 5. **Evaluating the Integral**: - To evaluate the integral, we can use the substitution \( x = R \tan(\theta) \), which transforms the integral limits and simplifies the expression. - After performing the integration, we find: \[ B_x = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2} \] 6. **Conclusion**: - The magnetic field at the point \( (x, 0, 0) \) due to the current loop is: \[ B_x = \frac{\mu_0 I}{2} \]
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