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A particle of charge q, mass starts moving from origin under the action of an electric field `vecE=E_(0)hati` and magnetic field `vecB=B_(0)hatk` . Its velocity at `(x,0,0)` is `v_(0)(6hati+8hatj)`. The value of x is

A

`(25mv_(0)^(2))/(qE_(0))`

B

`(100mv_(0)^(2))/(qB_(0))`

C

`(50mv_(0)^(2))/(qE_(0))`

D

`(14mv_(0)^(2))/(qE_(0))`

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem step by step, we will use the work-energy theorem and the properties of electric and magnetic fields. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understanding the Given Information**: - A particle of charge \( q \) and mass \( m \) starts moving from the origin \( (0, 0, 0) \). - The electric field is given by \( \vec{E} = E_0 \hat{i} \). - The magnetic field is given by \( \vec{B} = B_0 \hat{k} \). - The velocity of the particle at the point \( (x, 0, 0) \) is \( \vec{v}_0 = 6 \hat{i} + 8 \hat{j} \). 2. **Applying the Work-Energy Theorem**: - The work-energy theorem states that the change in kinetic energy (\( \Delta KE \)) is equal to the work done by the forces acting on the particle. - The work done by the magnetic field is zero because the magnetic force is always perpendicular to the displacement. - Therefore, we have: \[ \Delta KE = W_{\text{electric}}. \] 3. **Calculating the Change in Kinetic Energy**: - The initial kinetic energy (\( KE_i \)) at the origin (where the particle starts from rest) is: \[ KE_i = 0. \] - The final kinetic energy (\( KE_f \)) at the point \( (x, 0, 0) \) is given by: \[ KE_f = \frac{1}{2} m v^2, \] where \( v = |\vec{v}_0| = \sqrt{6^2 + 8^2} = \sqrt{36 + 64} = \sqrt{100} = 10 \). - Thus, \[ KE_f = \frac{1}{2} m (10^2) = \frac{1}{2} m (100) = 50m. \] 4. **Calculating the Work Done by the Electric Field**: - The work done by the electric field is given by: \[ W_{\text{electric}} = F \cdot d = (q \vec{E}) \cdot \vec{d}, \] where \( \vec{E} = E_0 \hat{i} \) and \( \vec{d} = x \hat{i} \). - Therefore, \[ W_{\text{electric}} = q E_0 x. \] 5. **Setting Up the Equation**: - From the work-energy theorem, we have: \[ \Delta KE = W_{\text{electric}} \implies 50m = q E_0 x. \] 6. **Solving for \( x \)**: - Rearranging the equation gives: \[ x = \frac{50m}{q E_0}. \] ### Final Answer: Thus, the value of \( x \) is: \[ x = \frac{50m v_0^2}{q E_0}. \]

To solve the problem step by step, we will use the work-energy theorem and the properties of electric and magnetic fields. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understanding the Given Information**: - A particle of charge \( q \) and mass \( m \) starts moving from the origin \( (0, 0, 0) \). - The electric field is given by \( \vec{E} = E_0 \hat{i} \). - The magnetic field is given by \( \vec{B} = B_0 \hat{k} \). ...
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