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An electron moving with a velocity overs...

An electron moving with a velocity `oversetrarrV_(1) = 2hatim//s` at a point in a magnetic field experiences a force `oversetrarrF_(1) = 2hatjN` if the elctron is moving with a velocity `oversetrarrV_(2) = 2hatj m//s` at the same point, it experiences a force `oversetrarrF_(2) =+2hatiN` The force the electron wolud experience if it were moving with a velocity `oversetrarrV_(3)=2hatkm//s` at the same point is .

A

(a)zero

B

(b)`2hatkN`

C

(c)`-2hatkN`

D

(d)Information is insufficient

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we will use the relationship between the magnetic force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field, which is given by the equation: \[ \vec{F} = q (\vec{V} \times \vec{B}) \] where: - \(\vec{F}\) is the magnetic force, - \(q\) is the charge of the particle (for an electron, \(q = -e\)), - \(\vec{V}\) is the velocity of the particle, - \(\vec{B}\) is the magnetic field. ### Step 1: Analyze the given information 1. **First case**: - Velocity: \(\vec{V_1} = -2 \hat{i} \, \text{m/s}\) - Force: \(\vec{F_1} = 2 \hat{j} \, \text{N}\) 2. **Second case**: - Velocity: \(\vec{V_2} = 2 \hat{j} \, \text{m/s}\) - Force: \(\vec{F_2} = 2 \hat{i} \, \text{N}\) ### Step 2: Set up the equations for the magnetic field Using the force equation for both cases, we can express the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) in terms of the known velocities and forces. For the first case: \[ \vec{F_1} = q (\vec{V_1} \times \vec{B}) \] Substituting the values: \[ 2 \hat{j} = -e (-2 \hat{i} \times \vec{B}) \] This simplifies to: \[ 2 \hat{j} = 2e (\hat{i} \times \vec{B}) \] Thus: \[ \hat{j} = e (\hat{i} \times \vec{B}) \quad \text{(1)} \] For the second case: \[ \vec{F_2} = q (\vec{V_2} \times \vec{B}) \] Substituting the values: \[ 2 \hat{i} = -e (2 \hat{j} \times \vec{B}) \] This simplifies to: \[ 2 \hat{i} = -2e (\hat{j} \times \vec{B}) \] Thus: \[ -\hat{i} = e (\hat{j} \times \vec{B}) \quad \text{(2)} \] ### Step 3: Solve for the magnetic field \(\vec{B}\) From equations (1) and (2), we can find the components of \(\vec{B}\). 1. From equation (1): - If \(\hat{j} = e (\hat{i} \times \vec{B})\), we can deduce that \(\vec{B}\) has components in the \(k\) direction. 2. From equation (2): - If \(-\hat{i} = e (\hat{j} \times \vec{B})\), we can also deduce that \(\vec{B}\) has components in the \(k\) direction. Thus, we can conclude that: \[ \vec{B} = B_k \hat{k} \] ### Step 4: Calculate the force for the third velocity Now, we need to find the force when the electron is moving with: \[ \vec{V_3} = 2 \hat{k} \, \text{m/s} \] Using the force equation: \[ \vec{F_3} = q (\vec{V_3} \times \vec{B}) \] Substituting the values: \[ \vec{F_3} = -e (2 \hat{k} \times B_k \hat{k}) \] Since \(\hat{k} \times \hat{k} = 0\), we have: \[ \vec{F_3} = 0 \] ### Final Answer The force the electron would experience if it were moving with a velocity \(\vec{V_3} = 2 \hat{k} \, \text{m/s}\) at the same point is: \[ \vec{F_3} = 0 \, \text{N} \]

To solve the problem, we will use the relationship between the magnetic force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field, which is given by the equation: \[ \vec{F} = q (\vec{V} \times \vec{B}) \] where: - \(\vec{F}\) is the magnetic force, ...
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