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Let a = tan 6^(@) tan 42^(@), b = cot 66...

Let `a = tan 6^(@) tan 42^(@), b = cot 66^(@) cot 78^(@)`, then `cos^(-1) [tan(pi a/b)]`=…………

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If A=tan6^(@) tan 42^(@) and B= cot 66^(@)cot 78^(@) then-

If A=tan6^(@)tan42^(@) and B=cot66^(@)cot78^(@), then

If A=tan6^(@)tan42^(@) and B=cot66^(@)cot78^(@) then

The value of tan 6^(@) tan 42^(@) tan 66^(@) tan 78^(@) is

If A = tan11^(@)tan29^(@),B=2cot61^(@)cot79^(@) , then:

cot6^(0)cot42^(0)cot66^(@)cot78^(@)=1

Prove that: tan6^(0)tan42^(0)tan66^(@)tan78^(@)=1

(tan 35^(@))/(cot 55^(@))+(cot 78^(@))/(tan 12^(@))=?