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If p and q are logical statements, then ...

If p and q are logical statements, then `(~p)rarr(prarrq)` is equivalent to

A

`p^^q`

B

`prarr(pvvq)`

C

`pvvq`

D

None of these

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the logical statement `(~p) → (p → q)` and find its equivalent form, we can follow these steps: ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understand the Implication**: The statement `(~p) → (p → q)` can be rewritten using the definition of implication. Recall that `A → B` is equivalent to `¬A ∨ B`. Therefore, we can rewrite the implication: \[ (~p) → (p → q) \equiv ¬(~p) ∨ (p → q) \] 2. **Negate the Negation**: The negation of `~p` is `p`. So we can substitute this into our expression: \[ p ∨ (p → q) \] 3. **Rewrite the Inner Implication**: Now, we need to rewrite `p → q` using the same implication rule: \[ p → q \equiv ¬p ∨ q \] Substituting this back into our expression gives: \[ p ∨ (¬p ∨ q) \] 4. **Apply Associative Law**: The logical OR operation is associative, which allows us to rearrange the terms: \[ p ∨ ¬p ∨ q \] 5. **Use the Law of Excluded Middle**: The expression `p ∨ ¬p` is a tautology, meaning it is always true. Therefore, we can simplify: \[ (p ∨ ¬p) ∨ q \equiv True ∨ q \] 6. **Final Simplification**: Since `True ∨ q` is always true regardless of the truth value of `q`, we conclude: \[ True \] ### Conclusion: Thus, the expression `(~p) → (p → q)` is equivalent to `True`.
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