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Consider the two curves C(1):y=1+cos x a...

Consider the two curves `C_(1):y=1+cos x and C_(2): y=1 + cos (x-alpha)" for "alpha in (0,(pi)/(2))," where "x in [0,pi].` Also the area of the figure bounded by the curves `C_(1),C_(2), and x=0` is same as that of the figure bounded by `C_(2),y=1, and x=pi`.
For the values of `alpha`, the area bounded by `C_(1),C_(2),x=0 and x=pi` is

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Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
1

`"Given that "D_(1)=D_(2)`
`overset(c)underset(1)int((1)/(x)-log x)dx=overset(a)underset(c)int(logx-(1)/(x))dx`
`((-1)/(x^(2))-x(logx-1))_(1)^(c)=(x(logx-1)+(1)/(x^(2)))_(c)^(a)`

`therefore" "0=a(log a-1)+(1)/(a^(2))`
`therefore" "a=1`
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