Home
Class 12
MATHS
~(pvvq)vv(~p^^q) is equivalent to...

`~(pvvq)vv(~p^^q)` is equivalent to

A

`~p`

B

p

C

q

D

`~q`

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
A
Key idea Use De-morgan's and distributive law.
We have , `~ (p vee q) vee (~p wedge q)`
`-= (~p wedge ~q) vee (~ p wedge q)`
`[ therefore " By De-Morgan's law "~(p vee q)= (~ p wedge ~q)]`
`-= ~p wedge (~q vee q) " " `[ By distributive law]
`-= ~p wedge t " "[~q vee q =t]`
`-= ~p`
Promotional Banner

Similar Questions

Explore conceptually related problems

The Boolean Expression ~(pvvq) vv(~pvvq) is equivalent to

The Boolean Expression (p^^~ q)vvqvv(~ p^^q) is equivalent to :

p iff q is equivalent to :

(p^^~q)^^(~p^^q) is

For any two statements p and q, ~(pvvq)vv(~p^^q) is logically equivalents to

The logical statement [~(~pvvq)vv(p^^r)]^^(~q^^r) is equivalent to (a) (~p^^~q)^^r (b) ~p vv r (c) (p^^r)^^~q (d) (p^^~q)vvr

If the Boolean expression (po+q)^^(~psquareq) is equivalent to p^^q where o+, square epsilon{^^,vv} then the ordered pair (o+, square) is

(~pvv~q) is logically equivalent to

The boolean expression ~ (p rArr (~ q)) is equivalent to

~(pvv(~pvvq)) is equal to