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Let y=f(x) be drawn with f(0) =2 and for...

Let `y=f(x)` be drawn with `f(0) =2` and for each real number `a` the line tangent to `y = f(x)` at `(a,f(a))` has x-intercept ` (a-2)`. If `f(x)` is of the form of `k e^(px)` then`k/p` has the value equal to

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CENGAGE PUBLICATION-APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVES-All Questions
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