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Statement I : (p^^∼q)∧(∼p^^q) is a falla...

Statement I : `(p^^∼q)∧(∼p^^q)` is a fallacy.
Statement II : `(p→q)↔(∼q→∼p) `is a tautology.

A

Statement-1 is true, statement 2 is true, statement 2 is a correct explanation for statement 1

B

Statement 1 is true, statement-2 is true, statement 2 is not a correct explanation for statement 1

C

Statement 1 is true , statement 2 is false,

D

statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
B

It is fallacy
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