A dealer buys an article marked at rs 20000 with two successive discounts of 10% and 8%.He spends rs 1440 on repairs and sells it for rs 20000, what is his profit / loss percent (correct to tone dicimal place)?

Options

A. 12.3% profit
B. 12.3% loss
C. 11.1% profit
D. 11.1 loss

Answer

To solve the problem step by step, we will follow the calculations as described in the video transcript.

### Step 1: Calculate the Selling Price after Discounts
The marked price (MP) of the article is Rs. 20,000. The dealer receives two successive discounts: the first discount is 10%, and the second discount is 8%.

1. **First Discount Calculation:**
- First discount = 10% of Rs. 20,000
- First discount = 0.10 × 20000 = Rs. 2000
- Price after first discount = MP - First discount = 20000 - 2000 = Rs. 18,000

2. **Second Discount Calculation:**
- Second discount = 8% of Rs. 18,000
- Second discount = 0.08 × 18000 = Rs. 1440
- Price after second discount = Price after first discount - Second discount = 18000 - 1440 = Rs. 16,560

### Step 2: Calculate the Total Cost Price (CP)
The dealer also spends Rs. 1,440 on repairs. Therefore, we need to add this repair cost to the price after discounts to find the total cost price.

- Total CP = Price after discounts + Repair cost
- Total CP = 16,560 + 1,440 = Rs. 18,000

### Step 3: Calculate the Selling Price (SP)
The dealer sells the article for Rs. 20,000.

### Step 4: Calculate Profit or Loss
Now, we can find out the profit or loss by subtracting the total cost price from the selling price.

- Profit = SP - CP
- Profit = 20,000 - 18,000 = Rs. 2,000

### Step 5: Calculate Profit Percentage
To find the profit percentage, we use the formula:

\[ \text{Profit Percentage} = \left( \frac{\text{Profit}}{\text{CP}} \right) \times 100 \]

Substituting the values we have:

\[ \text{Profit Percentage} = \left( \frac{2000}{18000} \right) \times 100 = \frac{2000 \times 100}{18000} = \frac{200000}{18000} \approx 11.11\% \]

### Final Answer
The profit percentage is approximately **11.1%**.

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