Applied to a ball for Rs. 1,00,000 the difference between a discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 36% ad 4% is :

Options

A. Nil
B. Rs. 1,440
C. Rs. 2,500
D. Rs. 4,000

Answer

To solve the problem, we need to find the difference between a single discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% applied to a ball priced at Rs. 1,00,000.

### Step-by-Step Solution:

**Step 1: Calculate the amount after a single discount of 40%.**

- The discount amount for 40% on Rs. 1,00,000 is calculated as:

\[ \text{Discount} = \text{Original Price} \times \frac{\text{Discount Percentage}}{100} \]

\[ \text{Discount} = 1,00,000 \times \frac{40}{100} = 1,00,000 \times 0.4 = 40,000 \]

- Therefore, the selling price after the discount is:

\[ \text{Selling Price} = \text{Original Price} - \text{Discount} = 1,00,000 - 40,000 = 60,000 \]

**Step 2: Calculate the amount after two successive discounts of 36% and 4%.**

- First, we apply the 36% discount:

\[ \text{Discount on 36%} = 1,00,000 \times \frac{36}{100} = 1,00,000 \times 0.36 = 36,000 \]

\[ \text{Price after 36% discount} = 1,00,000 - 36,000 = 64,000 \]

- Next, we apply the 4% discount on the new price (Rs. 64,000):

\[ \text{Discount on 4%} = 64,000 \times \frac{4}{100} = 64,000 \times 0.04 = 2,560 \]

\[ \text{Price after 4% discount} = 64,000 - 2,560 = 61,440 \]

**Step 3: Calculate the difference between the two selling prices.**

- The selling price after a single discount of 40% is Rs. 60,000.
- The selling price after successive discounts of 36% and 4% is Rs. 61,440.

Now, we find the difference:

\[ \text{Difference} = \text{Price after 2 discounts} - \text{Price after 1 discount} \]

\[ \text{Difference} = 61,440 - 60,000 = 1,440 \]

### Final Answer:
The difference between the discount of 40% and two successive discounts of 36% and 4% is Rs. 1,440.

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