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A person sold two steel almirahs for Rs...

A person sold two steel almirahs for Rs. `1980` each. On one he gained `10%` while on the other he lost `10%` . In the bargain he

A

Neither gained nor lost

B

Gained `1%`

C

Lost `1%`

D

Gained `2%`

Text Solution

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem step by step, let's break it down: ### Step 1: Understand the Selling Prices The person sold two steel almirahs for Rs. 1980 each. Therefore, the selling price (SP) for each almirah is: - SP1 = Rs. 1980 (for the first almirah with a gain of 10%) - SP2 = Rs. 1980 (for the second almirah with a loss of 10%) ### Step 2: Calculate the Cost Price for Each Almirah 1. **For the first almirah (10% gain)**: - Let the cost price (CP1) be \( x \). - Since there is a gain of 10%, we can express the selling price as: \[ SP1 = CP1 + 10\% \text{ of } CP1 = CP1 \times \left(1 + \frac{10}{100}\right) = CP1 \times 1.1 \] - Setting this equal to the selling price: \[ 1980 = x \times 1.1 \] - Solving for \( x \): \[ x = \frac{1980}{1.1} = 1800 \] - Therefore, the cost price of the first almirah (CP1) is Rs. 1800. 2. **For the second almirah (10% loss)**: - Let the cost price (CP2) be \( y \). - Since there is a loss of 10%, we can express the selling price as: \[ SP2 = CP2 - 10\% \text{ of } CP2 = CP2 \times \left(1 - \frac{10}{100}\right) = CP2 \times 0.9 \] - Setting this equal to the selling price: \[ 1980 = y \times 0.9 \] - Solving for \( y \): \[ y = \frac{1980}{0.9} = 2200 \] - Therefore, the cost price of the second almirah (CP2) is Rs. 2200. ### Step 3: Calculate Total Cost Price and Total Selling Price - Total Cost Price (CP) = CP1 + CP2 \[ CP = 1800 + 2200 = 4000 \] - Total Selling Price (SP) = SP1 + SP2 \[ SP = 1980 + 1980 = 3960 \] ### Step 4: Determine Overall Gain or Loss - To find the overall gain or loss, we subtract the total cost price from the total selling price: \[ \text{Loss} = CP - SP = 4000 - 3960 = 40 \] - To find the percentage loss: \[ \text{Percentage Loss} = \left(\frac{\text{Loss}}{\text{Total CP}}\right) \times 100 = \left(\frac{40}{4000}\right) \times 100 = 1\% \] ### Conclusion The person incurred a loss of 1%. Therefore, the answer is: **C) lost 1%**
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