If p(q-r)x^2+q(r-p)x+r(p-q)=0 has equal ...

If `p(q-r)x^2+q(r-p)x+r(p-q)=0` has equal roots, then prove that `2/q=1/p+1/rdot`

`(1)/(p)+ (1)/(r)`

`(1)/(p)- (1)/(r)`

`(1)/(r)- (1)/(p)`

`(1)/(pr)`

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