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Assertion (A) : The area bounded by one ...

Assertion (A) : The area bounded by one of the arcs of `y=cos` ax and X-axis is 2/a s.units.
Reason ( R ): The area bounded by `y=f(x)gt0` and y = 0 between x = a and x = b is `underset(a)overset(b)int` ydx The correct answer is

A

Both (A) and ( R ) are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B

Both (A) and ( R ) are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

C

(A) is true, ( R ) is false

D

(A) false ( R ) is true

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we need to analyze the assertion and the reason provided. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understanding the Assertion (A)**: The assertion states that the area bounded by one of the arcs of \( y = \cos(ax) \) and the x-axis is \( \frac{2}{a} \) square units. 2. **Finding the Area Under the Curve**: To find the area under the curve \( y = \cos(ax) \), we need to determine the limits for one complete arc of the cosine function. The cosine function completes one full cycle from \( 0 \) to \( 2\pi \). However, since we are looking for the area bounded by the x-axis, we will consider the interval where the cosine function is non-negative. For \( y = \cos(ax) \): - The function is non-negative between \( x = -\frac{\pi}{2a} \) and \( x = \frac{\pi}{2a} \) for one complete arc. 3. **Setting Up the Integral**: The area \( A \) can be calculated using the integral: \[ A = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2a}}^{\frac{\pi}{2a}} \cos(ax) \, dx \] 4. **Evaluating the Integral**: To evaluate the integral, we use the substitution \( u = ax \), which gives \( du = a \, dx \) or \( dx = \frac{du}{a} \). The limits change accordingly: - When \( x = -\frac{\pi}{2a} \), \( u = -\frac{\pi}{2} \) - When \( x = \frac{\pi}{2a} \), \( u = \frac{\pi}{2} \) Thus, the integral becomes: \[ A = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos(u) \cdot \frac{1}{a} \, du \] \[ A = \frac{1}{a} \left[ \sin(u) \right]_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} = \frac{1}{a} \left( \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) - \sin\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\right) \right) \] \[ A = \frac{1}{a} (1 - (-1)) = \frac{2}{a} \] 5. **Conclusion**: We find that the area bounded by one arc of \( y = \cos(ax) \) and the x-axis is indeed \( \frac{2}{a} \) square units, confirming the assertion. 6. **Understanding the Reason (R)**: The reason states that the area bounded by \( y = f(x) \) (where \( f(x) > 0 \)) and the x-axis between \( x = a \) and \( x = b \) is given by the integral \( \int_a^b f(x) \, dx \). This is a standard result in calculus and is indeed true. ### Final Answer: Both the assertion (A) and the reason (R) are correct, and the reason provides a correct explanation for the assertion.
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