Home
Class 12
MATHS
Show that Lagrange's mean-value theorem ...

Show that Lagrange's mean-value theorem is not applicable to `f(x) = (1)/(x) " on " [-1, 1]`

Promotional Banner

Similar Questions

Explore conceptually related problems

Show that Lagrange's mean-value theorem is not applicable to f(x) = |x| " on " [-1, 1]

In [0,1], Lagrange's mean value theorem is not applicable to

In [0, 1] Lagrange's mean value theorem is not applicable to

In [0, 1] Lagrange's mean value theorem is not applicable to

In [0, 1] Lagrange's mean value theorem is not applicable to

Show that the lagranges mean value theorem is not applicable to the function f(x)=1/x on [-1,\ 1] .

Lagrange's mean value theorem is not applicable to f(x) in [1,4] where f(x) =

Lagrange's mean value theorem is not applicable to f(x) in [1,4] where f(x) =

In [-1,1] , Lagrange's Mean Value theorem is applicable to